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FRM Part I practice questions
20 free exam-style questions across every topic area, each with the answer and the reasoning behind it.
How to use this page
20 questions, 5 for each topic area, written in the style of the FRM® Part I exam. Pick an answer before you open the explanation; the reasoning matters more than the letter. Topics follow the published topic weights.
Foundations of Risk Management
20% of the exam
Risk taxonomy, governance, CAPM, multifactor models, financial disasters.
Question 1
A portfolio has a return of 12%, a standard deviation of 18% and a beta of 1.2. The risk-free rate is 3%. Its Treynor ratio is closest to:
- A0.050
- B0.075
- C0.090
- D0.500
Show the answer
B. 0.075
Treynor = (R_p − R_f)/β = (12% − 3%)/1.2 = 0.075. The Sharpe ratio, using σ, would be 0.50.
Curriculum area: Foundations of Risk Management — Risk-Adjusted Performance
Question 2
The collapse of Barings Bank is most directly attributed to:
- AAn unhedged commodity basis exposure
- BA single trader controlling both trading and settlement functions
- CA liquidity mismatch in the repo book
- DA model error in option pricing
Show the answer
B. A single trader controlling both trading and settlement functions
The failure was one of governance: Nick Leeson controlled both the front and back office, so losses could be concealed. The trade itself was secondary.
Curriculum area: Foundations of Risk Management — Financial Disasters
Question 3
Two portfolios show identical Sharpe ratios but different Treynor ratios. This most likely indicates that:
- AOne portfolio holds significant undiversified specific risk
- BOne portfolio is leveraged
- CThe risk-free rate was measured differently
- DBoth portfolios are fully diversified
Show the answer
A. One portfolio holds significant undiversified specific risk
For fully diversified portfolios the two measures rank identically. Divergence implies specific risk in one portfolio that beta does not capture.
Curriculum area: Foundations of Risk Management — Risk-Adjusted Performance
Question 4
Under an enterprise risk management framework, the primary responsibility for setting risk appetite lies with:
- AThe chief risk officer
- BThe board of directors
- CInternal audit
- DThe trading desk heads
Show the answer
B. The board of directors
The board sets risk appetite; management translates it into limits and the risk function monitors adherence. Audit provides independent assurance.
Curriculum area: Foundations of Risk Management — Risk Governance
Question 5
A risk that can be transferred at a known cost, such as a hedgeable currency exposure, is best managed by:
- AHolding economic capital against it
- BHedging it
- CScenario analysis only
- DAccepting it as an unknown unknown
Show the answer
B. Hedging it
Known and hedgeable risks are hedged. Capital covers quantifiable but unhedged risk; scenario analysis addresses the unknown unknowns.
Curriculum area: Foundations of Risk Management — Risk Taxonomy
Quantitative Analysis
20% of the exam
Probability, hypothesis testing, regression, time series, volatility, simulation.
Question 6
A test for a rare condition has 95% sensitivity and 95% specificity. The condition affects 1% of the population. Given a positive result, the probability the condition is present is closest to:
- A16%
- B48%
- C85%
- D95%
Show the answer
A. 16%
P(D|+) = (0.95 × 0.01)/[(0.95 × 0.01) + (0.05 × 0.99)] = 0.0095/0.0590 = 16.1%. Base rates dominate when the event is rare.
Curriculum area: Quantitative Analysis — Bayes' Rule
Question 7
A GARCH(1,1) model is estimated with α = 0.08 and β = 0.90. Persistence and the implication for volatility are:
- A0.98 — volatility mean-reverts slowly
- B0.98 — volatility mean-reverts quickly
- C0.82 — the model is non-stationary
- D1.00 — the model reduces to EWMA
Show the answer
A. 0.98 — volatility mean-reverts slowly
Persistence is α + β = 0.98, close to one, so shocks decay slowly and volatility mean-reverts only gradually. At exactly 1.00 it becomes EWMA.
Curriculum area: Quantitative Analysis — Measuring Volatility
Question 8
An analyst regresses one random walk on an unrelated random walk and obtains an R² of 0.78 with a significant t-statistic. The correct conclusion is that:
- AA genuine economic relationship exists
- BThe regression is spurious because both series are non-stationary
- CThe sample size is too small
- DHeteroskedasticity is present
Show the answer
B. The regression is spurious because both series are non-stationary
Regressing non-stationary series produces spuriously high R² and significant t-statistics with no underlying relationship. Difference the series first.
Curriculum area: Quantitative Analysis — Stationary and Non-Stationary Time Series
Question 9
Lowering the significance level of a hypothesis test from 5% to 1% will:
- AReduce Type I error and reduce Type II error
- BReduce Type I error and increase Type II error
- CIncrease Type I error and reduce Type II error
- DLeave both error rates unchanged
Show the answer
B. Reduce Type I error and increase Type II error
A stricter threshold makes rejection harder, cutting false rejections (Type I) but raising failures to reject a false null (Type II).
Curriculum area: Quantitative Analysis — Hypothesis Testing
Question 10
Compared with GARCH(1,1), the EWMA model:
- AIncludes a long-run variance term and mean-reverts
- BOmits the long-run variance term and does not mean-revert
- CRequires a normality assumption GARCH does not
- DCannot be estimated from historical returns
Show the answer
B. Omits the long-run variance term and does not mean-revert
EWMA is GARCH(1,1) with ω = 0 and α + β = 1, so there is no long-run variance to revert to.
Curriculum area: Quantitative Analysis — Measuring Volatility and Correlation
Financial Markets & Products
30% of the exam
Institutions, market structure, futures, swaps, options, rates, FX, MBS.
Question 11
The standard deviation of spot price changes is 0.65, the standard deviation of futures price changes is 0.81, and their correlation is 0.80. The minimum variance hedge ratio is closest to:
- A0.64
- B0.80
- C0.99
- D1.25
Show the answer
A. 0.64
h* = ρ × (σ_S/σ_F) = 0.80 × (0.65/0.81) = 0.80 × 0.8025 = 0.642.
Curriculum area: Financial Markets and Products — Hedging with Futures
Question 12
Initial margin posted to a central counterparty is intended to cover:
- ACurrent mark-to-market exposure
- BPotential future exposure over the close-out period
- CThe clearing member's default fund contribution
- DAccrued interest on the position
Show the answer
B. Potential future exposure over the close-out period
Initial margin covers potential future exposure between default and close-out. Variation margin settles current mark-to-market.
Curriculum area: Financial Markets and Products — Central Counterparties
Question 13
An investor buys a call with a strike of $40 for a premium of $3. The breakeven price at expiry is:
- A$37
- B$40
- C$43
- D$46
Show the answer
C. $43
Breakeven = strike + premium = 40 + 3 = $43. Below that the option either expires worthless or recovers less than the premium paid.
Curriculum area: Financial Markets and Products — Options Mechanics and Payoffs
Question 14
A hedger uses a futures contract on a related but different asset. The residual exposure is best described as:
- ACounterparty risk
- BBasis risk
- CLiquidity risk
- DOperational risk
Show the answer
B. Basis risk
Cross-hedging leaves basis risk — the risk that the spot and futures prices do not move together.
Curriculum area: Financial Markets and Products — Forwards and Futures
Question 15
On a reset date, the value of the floating leg of a plain vanilla interest rate swap is:
- AZero
- BPar
- CThe notional plus accrued interest for the full remaining term
- DIndeterminate without the forward curve
Show the answer
B. Par
A floating-rate note reprices to par on each reset date. That single fact collapses most swap valuation questions.
Curriculum area: Financial Markets and Products — Swaps
Valuation & Risk Models
30% of the exam
VaR and ES, option valuation, bond risk, stress testing, credit and op risk.
Question 16
A portfolio worth $200m has a daily volatility of 1.2% and a mean daily return of zero. The 1-day 99% VaR is closest to:
- A$2.4m
- B$3.9m
- C$5.6m
- D$8.5m
Show the answer
C. $5.6m
VaR = 2.326 × 0.012 × 200m = $5.58m. Using the 95% z-score of 1.645 gives $3.9m, the planted distractor.
Curriculum area: Valuation and Risk Models — Value-at-Risk
Question 17
A loan has a probability of default of 3%, loss given default of 45% and exposure at default of $10m. Expected loss is:
- A$135,000
- B$300,000
- C$450,000
- D$1,350,000
Show the answer
A. $135,000
EL = PD × LGD × EAD = 0.03 × 0.45 × 10,000,000 = $135,000. Provisions cover this; capital covers the unexpected loss around it.
Curriculum area: Valuation and Risk Models — Credit Risk
Question 18
Which statement about expected shortfall is correct?
- AES is never greater than VaR at the same confidence level
- BES is sub-additive; VaR need not be
- CES ignores the shape of the tail
- DES requires an assumption of normality
Show the answer
B. ES is sub-additive; VaR need not be
ES is a coherent risk measure and therefore sub-additive, while VaR can violate sub-additivity. ES also always equals or exceeds VaR at the same confidence.
Curriculum area: Valuation and Risk Models — Coherent Risk Measures
Question 19
Historical simulation VaR differs from delta-normal VaR chiefly because it:
- AAssumes returns are normally distributed
- BRequires no distributional assumption
- CCannot handle option positions
- DAlways produces a lower VaR estimate
Show the answer
B. Requires no distributional assumption
Historical simulation reorders actual past returns, so no distribution is assumed — at the cost of needing a long, representative sample.
Curriculum area: Valuation and Risk Models — Non-parametric Approaches
Question 20
A delta-neutral options book is long gamma. A large move in the underlying in either direction will produce:
- AA loss
- BA gain
- CNo profit or loss, since the book is delta neutral
- DA gain only if the move is upward
Show the answer
B. A gain
Long gamma means the position's delta moves favourably as the underlying moves, producing gains on large moves in either direction.
Curriculum area: Valuation and Risk Models — Option Sensitivities
Keep going
- FRM Part I formula sheetEvery core formula by topic.
- FRM Part I study planA 16-week plan for the May 2027 window.
- FRM Part I topic weightsWhat each topic covers and how much it counts.
- Finance glossary268 terms with the exam angle.
- CFA Level I practice questions
- CFA Level II practice questions
- CFA Level III practice questions
- FRM Part II practice questions
These are original practice questions in the style of the exam, not official questions. CFA® and FRM® are registered trademarks of their respective owners; GroundLearn is not affiliated with CFA Institute or GARP.
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